I was reading John 19 this morning and ended up with this study.
I’ve been aware of the differences for many years in the accounts. This though is probably the simplest and best explanation. If anyone see a hole in the logic let me know.
I have heard it said that since Jesus is:
Mat 12:8 For the Son of man is Lord even of the sabbath day.
Mrk 2:28 Therefore the Son of man is Lord also of the sabbath.
Luk 6:5 And he said unto them, That the Son of man is Lord also of the sabbath.
He is equally Lord of the Passover and therefore could celebrate it a day early.
Anyway I think the following is understandable.
John 19:14 And it was the preparation of the passover, and about the sixth hour: and he saith unto the Jews, Behold your King!
This is a simple Google search..
Passover Date (2024)
Evening of Mon, Apr 22, 2024 – Tue, Apr 30, 2024
Of course we all know why Easter and Passover are on different dates, but that’s another story.
Btw…here is a link to another interesting point. This is a separate article from the one below.
You may not have been aware of this…
Check your Bibles, since I’m the only one who went back to the old KJV and stopped after many, many years using the modern Bibles. You may not have noticed this. I find the idea that the scholarly KJV translators had a Senior Moment comical!
Acts 12:4 And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people.
Lancelot Andrews was one of the chief translators of the King James Bible and he gives a lengthy discourse on the custom of keeping the Christian feast of Easter to celebrate the Resurrection of our Lord and Saviour Jesus Christ.
He states:
“Then, will we descend to shew the keeping of Easter, to be such, ever in use with ‘the Churches of God’ from the time of the Apostles themselves. Which, if we can make plain, here is a plain text for it; that if one should ask, what Scripture have you why Easter may not be laid down? It may well be answered, Non habemus talem consuetudinem, nec Ecclesiæ Dei. CUSTOM TO KEEP IT WE HAVE THE APOSTLES, THE CHURCH HAD IT; BUT TO ABOLISH IT, “SUCH CUSTOM HAVE WE NONE,” WE DEPART FROM THEM BOTH IF WE DO.”
EVEN BY AUTHORITY OF DIVINE SCRIPTURE IT IS, THAT EVERY YEAR EASTER IS KEPT SOLEMNLY.’ We have touched two Scriptures heretofore: ‘The day, which the Lord had made,’ applied ever to this feast. That text for the Old. And for the New Testament that verse in this Epistle, ‘Christ our Passover is offered, let us therefore keep a feast.’
He then continues in his discourse to cite many well known early church writers who referred to the yearly celebration of Easter.
It should be obvious that the King James Bible translators themselves believed that the yearly celebration of EASTER had both Scriptural and apostolic authority.
Here is the main article.
https://www.gotquestions.org/Day-of-Preparation.html
If Jesus was crucified on the Day of Preparation, why had He already eaten the Passover meal?
Answer
All four Gospels state that Jesus was crucified on the Day of Preparation (Matthew 27:62; Mark 15:42; Luke 23:54; John 19:14, 31, 42). Mark, Luke, and John all state that the following day was the Sabbath. John’s account uses this wording: “It was the day of Preparation of the Passover” (John 19:14). The question becomes, since Jesus was killed on the Day of Preparation, why had He already observed the Passover with His disciples (Matthew 26:17–29; Mark 14:12–25; Luke 22:7–22; John 13:1–30)?
First, we should discard the theory that the writers of the New Testament made a mistake. Theorizing that all four of the Gospel writers got the chronology wrong stretches credulity to the breaking point. Are we really to believe that Matthew, Mark, Luke, and John all forgot what they had written from one chapter to the next? No, there must be a better explanation for why Jesus ate the Passover before the Day of Preparation.
Next, we need to identify what the Day of Preparation was preparing for. Every week, preparations had to be made for the Sabbath—food had to be prepared ahead of time. This led to the “Day of Preparation” becoming the common term for “Friday.” Although many preparations also had to be made for the Passover, there is no record of “Passover Eve” being called the Day of Preparation. The Day of Preparation was always Friday, the day before the Sabbath. Mark 15:42 makes this clear.
How then do we explain John’s statement that Jesus died on “the day of Preparation of the Passover” (John 19:14)? It’s quite possible that John simply meant that this particular Friday fell during Passover week; we could understand his words this way: “It was the day of Preparation, the one that happened to come during the season of Passover.” So, the Day of Preparation was to prepare for the Sabbath, not the Passover.
The Mosaic Law stipulated what day the Passover lamb was to be eaten: Nissan 14 (Numbers 9:2–3). We must assume that Jesus kept the Law and observed Passover at the appointed time (see Galatians 4:4). After the Passover (Thursday) came the Day of Preparation (Friday) on which Jesus was killed. The Sabbath (Saturday) followed, of course, and then the first day of the week (Sunday)—the third day after the crucifixion and the day on which Jesus rose from the dead.
One objection to the above chronology is based on John 18:28, which says, “The Jewish leaders took Jesus from Caiaphas to the palace of the Roman governor. By now it was early morning, and to avoid ceremonial uncleanness they did not enter the palace, because they wanted to be able to eat the Passover.” At first glance, it seems that, whereas Jesus had eaten the Passover the night before, the Jewish leaders had not yet eaten the Passover—they still “wanted to be able to eat” it after Jesus was arrested. To reconcile this verse with the Synoptic narratives, we must remember this: Passover was the first day of the week-long Feast of Unleavened Bread.
The Feast (or Festival) of Unleavened Bread (Chag HaMatzot) lasted for a full week, from Nissan 15 to Nissan 22. The first day of Unleavened Bread coincided with the day of Passover. Because of the close relation between Passover and the Feast of Unleavened Bread, the whole week was sometimes referred to as “Passover.” The two holidays were (and still are) considered a single celebration. This explains John 18:28. The Jewish leaders had already eaten the Passover proper, but there still remained other sacrifices to be made and meals to be eaten. They were unwilling to defile themselves (Pilate’s palace contained leaven) because it would disqualify them from participating in the remainder of the week’s ceremonies (see Leviticus 23:8).
There are other difficulties in pinpointing the exact chronology of Jesus’ arrest, trial, crucifixion, and resurrection. But this seems to be a workable solution:
Thursday – Passover proper. The lamb is killed, and Jesus and His disciples eat the Passover meal in the upper room.
Friday – the Day of Preparation. Jesus is tried and executed (although never convicted). The Jews continue their “Passover” celebrations with the chagigah, offerings made during the Feast of Unleavened Bread.
Saturday – the weekly Sabbath.
Sunday – Resurrection Day.Return to:
Questions about Jesus Christ
If Jesus was crucified on the Day of Preparation, why had He already eaten the Passover meal?
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Rainbow Trout 